PHARMA TUTORIAL

  LOCAL ANAESTHETIC 1. Cocaine is an example of which type of local anesthetic?  a) Ester  b) Amide  c) Both ester and amide  d) None of the above 2. Local anesthetics are often combined with which of the following to prolong their effects?  a) Epinephrine  b) Corticosteroids  c) Antibiotics  d) Antihistamines 3. Which of the following local anesthetics has the fastest onset of action?  a) Lidocaine  b) Benzocaine  c) Procaine  d) Bupivacaine 4. Which of the following local anesthetics is commonly used for topical anesthesia of mucous membranes?  a) Bupivacaine  b) Lidocaine  c) Cocaine  d) Benzocaine 5. Which of the following local anesthetics is typically used topically?  a) Bupivacaine  b) Benzocaine  c) Lidocaine  d) Procaine 6. Local anesthetics primarily exert their effect on nerve conduction in which region of the neuron?  a) Axon terminal  b) Axon  c) Cell b...

  DHYEY GPAT 2024 MCQ SERIES WITH EXPALAINATION * BOLD CHARACTER IS RIGHT ANSWER FOR THE QUESTION 1. Which of the following is delayed type of her sensitivity reaction (A) Arthus reaction  (B) Penicillin sensitivity  (C) Tubercullin sensitivity  (D) ABO incompatibity 2. Which of the following is NOT suitable as a post-coital contraceptive (A) Levonorgestrel 1.5mg (B) Ulipristal acetate 30 mg (C) Mifepristone 10-25 mg (D) Mestranol 1.5 mg 3. Which of the following properties are characteristics of tannis (P) They give a precipitate with alkaloids (Q) They give a yellow of bluish red color with iron(III) chloride (R) They transform hide into leather (S) They give a pale-pink precipipate with iodine (A) P, Q, S  (B) P and Q  (C) P and R  (D) Only Q 4. Adverse drug Event reporting in the responsibility of all of the following EXCEPT (A) Pharmacist and physician  (B) Manufacturer  (C) Consumer  (D) Regulatory authorities 5. Time dependent dil...

  DHYEY GPAT 2024 MCQ SERIES WITH EXPALAINATION * BOLD CHARACTER IS RIGHT ANSWER FOR THE QUESTION 1. What is the Carr’s index of good flow powder property (A) 5-15  (B) 12-16  (C) 18-21  (D) 28-35 EXPLAINATION : 2. Which microorganism is involved in the assay of Rifampicin (A) Bacillus subtilis  (B) Micrococcus luteus  (C) Bacillus pumilus  (D) Bacillus cereus 3. Which percentage of dextrose is isotonic with the blood plasma (A) 5%  (B) 10%  (C) 15%  (D) 20% EXPLAINATION : 4. What is the biological source of Alexandrian Senna (B) Cassia aungustifolia  (A) Cassia acutifolia  (C) Cassia Bravifolia  (D) Cassia Nerifolia 5. If the given drug is absorbed by passive what will be its absorption kinetics (A) Zero Order  (B) First Order (C) Second order  (D) Pseudo-zero Order *YOUTUBE CHANNEL:-*  PHARMA TUTORIAL *Instagram:-*  PHARMA TUTORIAL *Whatsapp:-* PHARMA TUTORIAL *Telegram* PHARMA TUTORIAL

  DHYEY GPAT 2024 MCQ SERIES WITH EXPALAINATION * BOLD CHARACTER IS RIGHT ANSWER FOR THE QUESTION 1. Which of the following drugs is an inhibitor of cytochrome p450 enzymes?   (a) Ketoconazole  (b) Rifampicin  (c) Phenytoin  (d) Phenobarbitone EXPLAINATION : Ketoconazole is a powerful microsomal enzyme inhibitor whereas rifampicin, phenobarbitone and phenytoin are enzyme inducers. 2. In metabolism of xenobiotics, all of the following reactions occur in phase one except?  (a) Oxidation   (b) Reduction  (c) Conjugation  (d) Hydrolysis EXPLAINATION : Metabolic reactions may be classified into phase I (non-synthetic) and phase II (synthetic) reactions. Phase I reactions include oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization and decyclization etc. whereas phase II reactions include glucuronidation, acetylation, methylation, sulfation and glycine conjugation etc. 3. Identify the wrong statement:   (a) Acidic drugs bind ...

  DHYEY GPAT 2024 MCQ SERIES WITH EXPALAINATION * BOLD CHARACTER IS RIGHT ANSWER FOR THE QUESTION 1. Ritonavir inhibits metabolism of the following drugs except:  (A) Amiodarone  (B) Phenobarbitone  (C) Cisapride  (D) Midazolam  EXPLAINATION : Ritonavir is a powerful inhibitor of CYP3A4, thus the metabolism of substrates of this enzyme will be inhibited by ritonavir. Important substrates of CYP3A4 are:  Amiodarone  Terfenadine Astemizole Cisapride  Cyclosporine Tacrolimus  Lovastatin and other statins  Calcium channel blockers  Midazolam  Protease inhibitors 2. Alkaline diuresis is done for treatment of poisoning due to: (A) Morphine  (B) Amphetamine  (C) Phenobarbitone  (D) Atropine  EXPLAINATION : Phenobarbitone is a barbiturate which is a derivative of barbituric acid (weakly acidic drug) and its excretion can be enhanced by making the urine alkaline. Morphine, atropine and amphetamines are basic dru...

  DHYEY GPAT 2024 MCQ SERIES WITH EXPALAINATION * BOLD CHARACTER IS RIGHT ANSWER FOR THE QUESTION 1. Following statements about pharmacokinetics of a drug are true/false?  (A) Most drugs are absorbed in ionized form  (B) Basic drugs are generally bound to plasma albumin  (C) Microsomal enzymes are located in mitochondria of hepatic cells  (D) Blood brain barrier is deficient at CTZ  (E) Highly plasma protein bound drugs have high volume of distribution EXPLAINATION : Most drugs are absorbed in un-ionized form as this is the lipid soluble form. Acidic drugs bind to albumin and basic drugs usually bind to alpha1 acid glycoprotein. Microsomal enzymes are present in smooth endoplasmic reticulum of hepatocytes.  Chemoreceptor trigger zone is a circumventricular organ, means it is devoid of blood brain barrier If a drug has high plasma protein binding, it decreases the volume of distribution 2. Following statements are true/false about clinical uses of ...